I was flicking through a 1959 copy of Radio News' Hi-Hi Annual the other day and came across an article on loudspeaker damping. The article detailed an experiment in de-damping an amplifier that, utilising global negative feedback, has a high damping factor, by connecting a fixed resistance equal to the nominal speaker impedance in series with the output.
Comparative frequency response plots are provided and it is shown that while the overall amplitude is reduced in the de-damped case, the low-end bass response is extended around the speaker’s resonance. No other measurements beyond the frequency response plots are provided and the author makes no subjective assessment as part of the experiment, but nevertheless, ends on an enthusiastic note about the technique for improving bass extension.
Now I know that this was written in 1959, but it struck me as this is something that is still advocated today, although mostly amongst proponents of full range drivers, which have a limited bass response. The tube heads think this justifies the high output impedance of their SET amplifiers.
Now can someone please explain to me how this concept of “current drive” isn’t a total kludge at improving bass response? I mean, the bass response of many speakers can definitely be extended here (but mostly only marginally), and a FR plot will show it, but ‘more’ bass doesn’t necessarily mean better bass, IMO.
What about stored energy, the loss of damping factor and speaker cone control? The benefits of a fast cumulative decay no longer matter? I’ve never owned a speaker who’s overall bass performance improved with a deliberate and excessive reduction in damping factor. An artificially boomy bass with a singing resonance isn’t more ‘Hi-Fi’ to my ears, and certainly isn’t to any objective standard.
A high-Zout amp seems rather sub-optimal option, in comparison to active equalization used in conjunction with a low z-out amplifier having adequate dynamic headroom.
Right?